UPSC PYQ - Practice Online

Practice UPSC Prelims previous-year questions with explanations. Questions are split by year for easy revision.

Question 1.With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

Question 2.Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Question 3.With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization Some of its functions It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I.	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II.	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III.	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

Question 4.Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Question 5.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 6.Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Question 7.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 8.Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Question 9.Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Question 10.Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

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UPSC PYQ 2025

Q1. With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

Q2. Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q3. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization Some of its functions It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

Q4. Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q5. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q6. Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q8. Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q9. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q10. Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q11. Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q12. Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settlement of disputes
How many of the above were elements of the Non-Cooperation Programme?

Q13. The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

Q14. Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitracitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

Q15. Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

Q16. Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

Q17. With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:
I. Asmaka : Godavari
II. Kamboja : Vipas
III. Avanti : Mahanadi
IV. Kosala : Sarayu
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q18. The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

Q19. Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q21. Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

Q22. Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela
Through how many of the above does the Andes mountain range pass?

Q23. Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?

Q24. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q25. Which of the following are evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q26. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q27. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q28. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q29. Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.
III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q30. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q31. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q32. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q33. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q34. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q35. Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

Q36. With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q37. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q38. Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q39. Consider the following pairs:
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q40. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q41. Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

Q42. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q43. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

Q44. Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?

Q45. Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

Q46. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

Q47. Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q48. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q49. Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q50. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q51. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q52. Consider the following pairs:
I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q53. With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Q54. Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q55. Consider the following pairs:
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q56. Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q57. With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q58. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor's office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Q59. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q60. Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) in our country?

Q61. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Q62. India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

Q63. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q64. The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 ℃. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q65. A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

Q66. Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q67. Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q68. Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q69. Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

Q70. Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q71. "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

Q72. The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

Q73. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

Q74. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

Q75. Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

Q76. Consider the following countries:
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

Q77. Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q78. Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

Q79. Consider the following pairs:
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia : Nickel
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Q80. Consider the following pairs:
I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Q81. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q82. Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028.
II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Q83. Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

Q84. With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q85. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

Q86. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q87. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q88. Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q89. Consider the following statements:
I. In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
II. In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q90. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

Q91. Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Q92. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q93. Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q94. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q95. Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q96. Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q97. Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q98. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q99. Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q100. Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

UPSC PYQ 2023

Q1. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q2. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

Q3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?

Q5. Consider the following dynasties:
Hoysala
Gahadavala
Kakatiya
Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

Q6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Literary work Author
1. Devichandragupta Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q7. "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects."
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

Q8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and canalcum- aqueduct several a kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

Q9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

Q10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

Q11. In essence, what does Due Process of Law' mean?

Q12. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Q15. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above constitutional bodies?

Q16. Consider the following statements:

If the election of the President of India is declared voidby the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
hunting is not allowed in such area
people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q19. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q20. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q21. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q22. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q23. â€˜Invasive Species Specialist Groupâ€™ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

Q24. Consider the following fauna:

Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet
Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

Q26. Consider the following statements:
Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:
They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q28. Consider the following statements:
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q29. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

Q30. Consider the following:
Aerosols
Foam agents
Fire retardants
Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

Q31. Consider the following statements:
Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q32. Consider the following pairs:
Port Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam Largest container port in Port India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q33. Consider the following trees:
Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
Mahua (Madhuca indica)
Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?

Q34. Consider the following statements:
India has more arable area than China.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q35. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

Q36. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

Q37. About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

Q38. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

Q39. Consider the following statements:
Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q40. With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements :
East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q41. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q42. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q43. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q44. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

Q45. Consider the following markets:
Government Bond Market
Call Money Market
Treasury Bill Market
Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?

Q46. Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?

Q47. Consider the following statements:
The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q48. Consider the investments in the following assets:
Brand recognition
Inventory
Intellectual property
Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

Q49. For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the following as criteria other than population area and income distance?
Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable government
Tax and fiscal efforts

Q50. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
Affordable housing
Mass rapid transport
Health care
Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

Q51. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:
Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q52.
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
Action The Act under which it is covered
1. Unauthorized wearingÂ of police or militaryÂ uniforms The Official SecretsÂ Act, 1923
2. Knowingly misleadingÂ of otherwise interferingÂ with a police officer orÂ military officer whenÂ engaged in their duties The Indian EvidenceÂ Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfireÂ which can endangerÂ the personal safety of others The Arms (Amendment)Â Act, 2019

Q53.
Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

Q54.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II: The â€˜Arab Peace Initiativeâ€™ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q55.
Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

Q56.
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
The official mascot was named â€˜Thambiâ€™.
The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q57.
Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located
1. Donbas Ukraine
2. Kachin Myanmar
3. Tigray Ethiopia

Q58. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

Q59. Consider the following heavy industries:
1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

Q60. Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q61. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

Q62.
Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in news Country where it is located
1. Donbas Ukraine
2. Kachin Myanmar
3. Tigray Ethiopia

Q63. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q64. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India According to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement-I : One of the standard sizes the National Flag of India of 600 mm Ã— 400 mm.
Statement-II : The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q65.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q66.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Switzerland in one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q67.
Consider the following statements :
Statements-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the â€˜Trade and Technology Councilâ€™.
Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q68.
Consider, the following statements :
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's â€˜Production-linked Incentiveâ€™ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q69.
Consider the following statements :
The â€˜Stability and Growth Pactâ€™ of the European Union is a treaty that
limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q70.
Consider the following statements :
Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the â€˜Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)â€™.
The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are

Q71.
Consider the following countries :
Bulgaria
Czech Republic
Hungary
Latvia
Lithuania
Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

Q72.
With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

Q73.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q74.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q75.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
Statement-II: In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q76.
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
None of them uses seawater.
None of them is set up in a water-stressed district.
None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q77. â€˜Wolbachia methodâ€™ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

Q78. Consider the following activities :
1.Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2.Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3.Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

Q79. â€˜Aerial metagenomicsâ€™ best refers to which one of the following situations?

Q80. â€˜Microsatellite DNAâ€™ is used in the case of which one of the following?

Q81. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
1.It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2.Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3.It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4.Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q82. Consider the following statements in the context interventions being undertaken under Anaemin Mukt Bharat Strategy :
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q83. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraftes.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q84. Consider the following actions:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
3. Detection of the tilt of smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above action is the function of accelerometer required?

Q85. With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Q86. Consider the following pairs:

Objects in space Description
1. Cepheids Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q87. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

Q88. Consider the following statements:

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocketpowered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q89. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q90. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Q91. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. According to the â€˜Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the â€˜medium enterprisesâ€™ are those with investments in plant and machinery between â‚¹ 15 crore and â‚¹ 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q92. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q93. In the context of finance, the term â€˜betaâ€™ refers to:

Q94. Consider the following statements :
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q95. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II : Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q96. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : According to the United Nations â€˜World Water Development Report, 2022â€™. India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q97. Consider the following statements :
According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statement are correct?

Q98. Consider the following statements :
In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q99. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q100. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

UPSC PYQ 2022

Q1. Consider the following pairs:
Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts Location in the State of
1.Dhauli—Odisha
2.Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
3.Jaugada—Madhya Pradesh
4.Kalsi—Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q2. Consider the following pairs:
King Dynasty
1.Nannuka—Chandela
2.Jayashakti—Paramara
3.Nagabhata II—Gurjara-Pratihara
4.Bhoja—Rashtrakuta
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q3. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

Q4. The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

Q5.
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q6. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

Q7.
Consider the following statements:

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.

2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.

3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q8.
Consider the following statements :

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1. assess the age of a plant or animal.

2. distinguish among species that look alike.

3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q9.
Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Nitrogen oxide

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

Q10.
Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q11.
Consider the following statements:

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.

2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.

3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q12.
Consider the following countries:

1. Armenia

2. Azerbaijan

3. Croatia

4. Romania

5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

Q13.
Consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q14.
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q15. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

Q16.
Consider the following pairs:

Country Important reason for being in the news recently

1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China

2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military

3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression

4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly, matched?

Q17.
Consider the following pairs:

Country Region often mentioned in the news

1. Anatolia — Turkey

2. Amhara — Ethiopia

3. Cabo Delgado — Spain

4. Catalonia — Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q18.
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.

3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q19. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

Q20. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

Q21.
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)?

1. CCO is the major source of Coal. Statistics in Government of India.

2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.

3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q22. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

Q23.
Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.

2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q24. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

Q25.
With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements:

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.

3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q26. Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?

Q27.
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q28.
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Ten Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q29. Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?

Q30.
Consider the following statements:

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.

2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).

3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q31.
Consider the following States:

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

Q32.
Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.

2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.

3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q33.
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.

2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.

3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q34.
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.

2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q35.
Consider the following:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

Q36.
Consider the following statements:

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.

2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.

3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.

4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.

5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q37. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

Q38.
With reference to Non-Fungible Token (NFTs), consider the following statements:

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.

2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.

3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q39.
Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs States

1. Ghataprabha — Telangana

2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh

3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh

4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

Q40.
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?

1. Administration of Justice

2. Local Self-Government

3. Land Revenue

4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q41. In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:

Q42.
Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh

2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

Q43.
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.

2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q44.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1. Nettipakarana

2. Parishishtaparvan

3. Avadanashataka

4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

Q45.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical person Known as

1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar

2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar

3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q46.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.

2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.

3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongola.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q47. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?

Q48.
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.

2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.

3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q49.
According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.

2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.

3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q50. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :

Q51.
Consider the following statements:

1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.

2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".

3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.

4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.

5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the 'Under2 Coalition'.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q52. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

Q53.
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1. The 24-hour mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.

2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.

3. PM₁₀ can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.

4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q54.
With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fungus.

2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.

3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q55.
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.

2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.

3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.

4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q56. Which of the following is not a bird?

Q57.
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa

2. Amaranth

3. Chickpea

4. Clover

5. Purslane (Kulfa)

6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q58. "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?

Q59. The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

Q60.
Consider the following:

1. Aarogya Setu

2. CoWIN

3. DigiLocker

4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

Q61.
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:

1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.

2. In Web 3.0 world, there can blockchain based social networks.

3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q62.
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements:

1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.

2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.

3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q63. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?

Q64. Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?

Q65.
Consider the following communication technologies:

1. Closed-circuit Television

2. Radio Frequency Identification

3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

Q66.
Consider the following statements:

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.

2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.

3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q67.
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.

2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.

3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q68.
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.

2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.

3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q69.
If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.

2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.

3. Power grids could be damaged.

4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.

5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.

6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.

7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q70. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

Q71.
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :

1. Reduced seed requirement

2. Reduced methane production

3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q72. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

Q73. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

Q74.
Consider the following pairs:

Peak Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya

2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya

3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q75. The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

Q76.
Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan

2. Kyrgyzstan

3. Tajikistan

4. Turkmenistan

5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

Q77.
With reference to India, consider the following statements?

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.

2. Monazite contains thorium.

3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.

4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q78. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

Q79.
Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake Location

1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab

2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh

3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura

4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Q80.
Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q81.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q82.
Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q83.
Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q84. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q85.
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements?

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q86.
Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q87.
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.

3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q88.
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.

2. As it aims to achieve universal, health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.

3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q89.
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q90. "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

Q91.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.

2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

Q92.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.

2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.

3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q93.
With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

2. It is an initiavtive to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q94.
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.

2. IIBS provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.

3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q95.
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.

2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q96.
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops

2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics

3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company.

4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q97. Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with referece to India?

Q98.
With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.

2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q99.
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.

2. Dated securities issued at marked-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

UPSC Previous Year Question Practice Online

UPSC PYQ practice helps aspirants understand the exam pattern, question framing, and the depth of concepts required for Prelims. Solving previous year questions improves accuracy, speed, and confidence before the actual exam.

On UPSCTIMER, you can practice UPSC Prelims PYQ online with answers and explanations. Questions are organized by year (2025, 2023, 2022) so you can revise systematically and track progress across recent papers.

Use this practice tool alongside your syllabus revision to identify weak areas and strengthen core topics. Regular PYQ practice combined with mock tests gives a clear advantage in the UPSC Prelims.

UPSC PYQ FAQs

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UPSC PYQ practice means solving previous year questions from UPSC Prelims to understand the pattern and improve accuracy.

Does UPSCTIMER include answers and explanations?

Yes. Each PYQ includes the correct answer and explanation so you can learn and revise quickly.

Which years are included in the PYQ practice?

Currently, the practice sets include 2025, 2023, and 2022 and will be expanded year by year.

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Solve PYQs topic-wise, review explanations, and track weak areas. Combine with revision and mock tests.

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Question 1.With reference to investments, consider the following:I. BondsII. Hedge FundsIII. StocksIV. Venture CapitalHow many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?